• Created by: JAlderman
  • Created on: 11-04-20 15:01
Define Symbiosis
The interactions and relationships between 2 organisms.
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Define Mutualism
The relationship which is beneficial to both organisms involved.
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Define commensalism
The relationship between 2 organisms in which one benefits and the other derives neither benefit nor harm.
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Define parasitism
The relationship between 2 organisms in which one benefits at the expense of the other, someimes without killing the host organism.
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Mutualism = ?
?= cooperation
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Parasitism = ?
?= antagonism
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What subsets were discovered in protozoan parasite research in the 1980s?
Th1 and Th2
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What are Th1 and Th2?
Th1 and Th2 are T-helper cells; their job is to recognize and destroy any foreign microorganism that can cause disease..
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What does Th1 do?
Th1 cells typically deal with infections by viruses and certain bacteria. Th1 is the body's first line of defense against any pathogen that gets inside our cells. Th1 cells tend to be pro-inflammatory.
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Define pro-inflammatory.
Capable of promoting inflammation.
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What does Th2 do?
Th2 cells deal with bacteria, toxins and allergens. Th2 is responsible for stimulating the production of antibodies. Th2 cells tend not to be inflammatory.
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What are the 2 uses for immunosuppressive drugs?
1. Transplants 2. Autoimmune disease
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Define autoimmune disease.
When the body's defence system can't tell the difference between your own cells and foreign cells which causes the body to attack itself.
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Define antibodies.
Y-shaped protein that binds to bacteria to get rid of them.
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What are antigens and how do they relate to antibodies?
Antigens are molecules capable of stimulating an immune response; antibodies respond to exposure of antigens.
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Name the 2 main types of immunity.
Innate immunity and Adaptive immunity
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Which type of immunity came first in the evolution of the immune system?
Innate immunity came 1st; Adaptive immunity came 2nd.
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Innate immunity is the immune systems ?
?= rapid response
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Adaptive immunity is the immune systems ?
?= slow response
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Innate immunity includes what 4 defence mechanisms?
1. Toll-like receptors, 2. Complement system, 3. Phagocytosis, 4. Anti-microbial peptides
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Adaptive immunity includes what 5 defence ?
1. Lymphocytes 2. MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) 3. Ig (immunoglobulins) 4. TCR (T-cell receptor) 5. RAG (Recombination-Activating Gene)
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Immunoglobulins are also known as ?
?= Antibodies
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What are the 5 different classes of Immunoglobulins?
1. IgG 2. IgM 3. IgD 4. IgA 5. IgE
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What 2 classes of immunoglobin do we start with?
IgM and IgD
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True or False; IgA can cross membranes.
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IgE is ...
A rare and tall anti-body used to control worm parasites
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True of False; We (humans) still have innate but also have adaptive immunity.
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Understanding the immune system helps us to develop what 4 things?
1. Vaccines, 2. Immunosuppressive drugs, 3. Cancer therapies removing regulation from T cells so that they are free to kill tumours, 4. Antibodies against pro-inflammatory cytokines to control autoimmune disease.
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Primitive organisms could kill invading organisms by ?
1. Releasing chemicals, 2. Defensive proteins, 3. Phagocytic cells
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This is not enough for humans. Humans need ?
A more intelligent defence system, one that could respond to any potential invaders, has long-lasting protection against infection and precise regulation to avoid self-attack (auto-immune disease) or harm to beneficial symbionts.
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Adaptive immunity includes what 3 cell types?
1. B cells, 2. T cells, 3. NK cells
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B cells are also known as ?
?= B lymphocytes
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True or False; T cells are also a type of lymphocyte.
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What are NK cells are what is their major role?
Natural killer cells (also known as NK cells, K cells, and killer cells) are a type of lymphocyte and a component of innate immune system. They play a major role in the host-rejection of both tumours and virally infected cells.
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Immune system strategies for protection from microorganisms:
1. Prevention, 2. Rapid and non specific attack, 3. Specific and tailored response.
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Prevention and rapid and non specific attack are what type of immunity?
Innate immunity
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Specific and tailored response are what type of immunity?
Adaptive immunity
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Innate Immune system is what 3 things?
1. Non-specific 2. Exists before an infection 3. Responds in the same way to all invading pathogens.
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Adaptive Immune system is what 4 things?
1. Specific 2. Responds and adapts to an infection 3. Increases in magnitude and defensive capabilities with each successive exposure 4. "Remembers" infectious agents
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Ture or False; The immune system has changed and evolved greatly.
False- The immune system has not changed much; its just been built upon.
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Define Basophils.
Basophils are a type of white blood cell which are produced in the bone marrow but found within many tissues.
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Define Neutrophils.
A type of white blood cell. This type of white blood cell make up to 55%-70% of the white blood cells.
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Define Eosinophils.
A type of white blood cells which contain granules that are readily stained by eosin (a red fluorescent dye that is a bromine derivative of fluorescein).
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Define Macrophages
Large phagocytic cells found in stationary form in the tissues or as mobile white blood cells, especially at sites of infection.
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Define DCs.
Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells. They process antigen material and present it on the cell surface to the T cells of the immune system.
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True or False; Dendritic cells act as messengers between the innate and adaptive immune system and are found on the skin.
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Basophils, Neutrophils, Eosinophils and macrophages are part of the ?
Innate immune system.
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What are the 6 stages of phagocytosis?
1. Attraction to inflammatory site 2. Recognition and attachment to receptor 3. Endocytosis 4. Phagosome-lysosome fusion 5. Killing 6. Digestion
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Define TLR.
Toll-Like Receptors. They are highly conserved (protected) PRRs (Pathogen Recognition Receptors.
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True or False; TLR transmit signals inside cells to genes to activate T cells
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True or False; DCs are part of the innate immune system.
False- DCs are not definitely confirmed within the innate or adaptive immune system as DCs communicate between the 2.
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Define Apoptotic.
A form of cell death in which a programmed sequence of events leads to the elimination of cells without releasing harmful substances into the surrounding area.
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What is meant by Naive lymphocytes.
Lymphocytes which never have seen the specific antigen.
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When an antigen is present, what happens?
Increase in lymphocytes which help to kill the foreign entity.
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What happens once the foreign entity is eliminated?
Most of the lymphocytes undergo apoptosis but a few are kept as memory precursors.
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Define Cytokines.
Small proteins secreted by cells that target other cells via receptors. Some can be categorised as pro-inflammatory or anti-inflammatory.
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Cytokines are important in ?
?= Cell signalling
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Finish the statement; Innate immune cells (e.g. neutrophils and 1. ) are 2. and can also send out cytokine signals.
1. Macrophages 2. Phagocytes
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DC signals yes= Immune response is induced perhaps because the bacteria are ? symbionts.
?= Parasitic
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This leads to the use of 1. cytokines e.g. 2.
1. Pro-inflammatory 2. TNF-alpha
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A peptide from the bacterial antigen is presented to ? cells along with alarm signals to induce an immune response.
?= T
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T cells help 1. cells to produce 2.
1. B 2. Antibodies
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Pro-inflammatory cytokines produced by Th1 cells help other cells e.g. 1. to kill, and another subset of T cell (Tc) can kill directly via 2.
1. Macrophages 2. Apoptosis
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DC signals no= Immune response is not induced, perhaps because the bacteria are ? symbionts.
?= commensal
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Define commensalism.
The relationship between 2 organisms in which one benefits and the other derives neither benefit nor harm.
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Therefore, 1. is induced in 2. (B, T and K cell) immunity.
1. Tolerance 2. Adaptive
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1. cytokines e.g. 2. help to maintain tolerance.
1. Anti-inflammatory 2. IL-10 (Interleukin-10)
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Define Apicomplexa
A group (phylum) of parasites
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Parasitism requires ?
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Explain this.
1 organism benefits from the host organism being harmed. If the host organism is being harmed too much this can have a detrimental affect to the parasite which requires the host.
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What are 2 main groups of apicomplexa?
1. Haematoza 2. Coccidia
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Name an example or a parasite which is part of the haematoza.
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Name an example or a parasite which is part of the Coccidia.
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True or false; haematoza and coccidia share similar properties.
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These groups of parasites effect ?
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From looking at their ancestry, Apicomplexans ancestors could have been photosynthetic organisms. Why?
Contain chloroplasts
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What was this last common ancestor called?
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Apicomplexans are ? parasites.
?= eukaryotic
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Define apicoplast.
Vestigial, non-photosynthetic, pigment free version of plastid which is found within the apicomlexan parasites.
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Define vestigial.
Degenerate, rudimentary, or atrophied, having become functionless in the course of evolution
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What year was the apicoplast identified.
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How was the apicoplast formed?
Primary endosymbiosis (cyanobacterium engulfed by eukaryote), secondary endosymbiosis (such eukaryote engulfed by another).
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True or False; apicoplast has a red algal origin.
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Apicoplast has important functions; explain this.
The apicoplast hosts four main metabolic pathways (fatty acid synthesis, isoprenoid synthesis, Heme synthesis and Iron-sulphur cluster synthesis)
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Define Apical complex.
An organ complex of the Apicomplexa.
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The apical complex has ? which help the apicomplexan to invade.
?= Specialist structures
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Define sporocyst.
Inaffective cell
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Define Oocyst wall
Protects sporocyst
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Parasites ? cells to survive
?= Manipulate
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State 2 ways parasites manipulate cells.
1. Remodel of cytoskeleton allows parasite to establish itself and invade 2. Interferes apoptosis and autophagy to survive and complete life cycle
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Toxoplasma godii is a ? parasite
?= Coccidian
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True or false; Most people are at risk if they have toxoplasma gondii.
False- Only immuno-compromised are at risk
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Define Bradyzoites
Slowly dividing stage of the parasite that make up tissue cysts.
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Define Trachyzoites
Bradyzoites convert into tachyzoites which are quick multiplying stage, responsible for expanding the population of the parasite in the host.
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What is the main carrier of toxoplasma gondii?
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How does the parasite get within cats?
Mice gain the parasite and alter the dopamine levels which makes the mice unafraid of cats. The cats hunt and eat the mice allowing the parasite to enter the cat
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True or false; toxoplasma gondii has been corelated with several neurological disorders.
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Define plasmodium
A genus which contains parasite species which can cause malaria and other diseases.
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Define colpodella and its division
Have 2 flagella which attach to cell and use rhoptries to **** out the cell. When they are fat they lose flagella and divide to create 4 new colpodella.
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Define chromera
Spherical green-brown alga found associated with corals.
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Define Vitrella
Spherical greenish alga found associated with corals, very similar to Chromera.
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True or false; Vitrella does not possess a pseudoconoid, chromerosome, or fingerlike projection on the anterior flagellum.
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Define gregarines.
Single-celled parasites and are larger than other apicomplexans.
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True or false; The apicoplast hast not been found yet within the gregarines.
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True or False; gregarines have only negative effects.
False; They can have positive or negative effects on their host and there is also reports that they have no effect.
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What are RAGs and what do they produce?
Recombination Activating Genes encode parts of a protein complex that plays important roles in the rearrangement and recombination of the genes that are used to produce T and B cells.
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Explain germline recombination.
V, D and J gene segments jumble up and combine
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V stands for ?
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D stands for ?
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J stands for ?
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What are the 3 functions of antibodies?
1. Neutralisation 2. Opsonisation 3. Complement Activation
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Define neutralization
A cell with receptors for toxins allow for the antibodies to gain these toxins and destroy them.
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Neutralisation is for ?
Bacterial toxins
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Define opsonisation.
Bacteria eaten by macrophage
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Opsonisation is for ?
Bacteria in extracellular space
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What is meant by complement activation?
Antibodies use enzymes (called complements) to destroy the bacteria.
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Complement activation is for ?
Bacteria in plasma
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B cells can...
Identify bacteria from outside of the cell.
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True or false; T cells can also identify bacteria from outside of the cell.
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What does MHC stand for?
Major Histocompatibility Complex
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True or False; we don't yet understand what Innate Lymphoid Cells (ILCs) do.
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Innate Lymphoid Cells (ILCs) don't have what 2 things?
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True or False; Innate Lymphoid Cells (ILCs) are thought to be only innate.
False; They are thought to be innate and adaptive
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What are the 4 Immune evasion and regulation strategies for bacteria.
1. Hiding from the immune system (e.g. inside cells) 2. Interfering with the function of the immune system 3. Destroying elements of the immune system 4. Promoting elements of the immune system
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What are the 4 different forms of seed dispersal symbioses?
1. Endozoochory- ingestion by vertebrate animals (mostly birds and mammals) 2. Synzoochory- dispersal of seeds by seed-caching animals 3. Myrmechory using eliaosomes (lipid-rich bodies on ants) 4. Ectozoochory- Furry plants andanimals
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When talking about pollination as a symbiosis; what 2 benefits does the plant receive?
1. Pollen dispersal 2. Ovule fertilization
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When talking about pollination as a symbiosis; what 2 benefits does the flower visitor receive?
1. Nectar for energetic demands 2. Pollen for protein/lipids for eggs/larvae
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What 2 things help to attract pollinators?
1. Visual signals 2. Scent
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True or False; yellow is the most common visual signal.
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True or false; Hummingbirds have a preference for red flowers.
False- Preference for red is almost certainly a learned association
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Floral scents operate at ? ranges.
?= different
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The chemicals behind floral scents are volatile. What does this mean?
They are small/simple organic compounds and so number of possibilities are limited.
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Define Helminths
worm-like parasites that survive by feeding on a living host to gain nourishment and protection, sometimes resulting in illness of the host.
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What is the 1st point of the hygiene hypothesis?
Organisms that live in our intestines are important for toning and shaping not only our local intestinal immune system, but also our systemic immune responses.
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What is the 2nd point of the hygiene hypothesis?
The progressively hygienic lifestyles of people living in industrialised societies have removed us from the natural surroundings that drove adaptation of our immune systems, and now provide an intestinal environment far different from our ancestors.
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What is the 3rd point of the hygiene hypothesis?
This difference is leading to the emergence of various autoimmune and other types of immunological diseases.
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What is the 4th point of the hygiene hypothesis?
Loss of helminth colonization and the unique influence of these animals on our immune response are major factors contributing to development of these diseases..
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True or False; Parasitic helminths have invaded virtually every niche within various host species.
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Many parasitic helminths have a ...
Simple, direct life-cycle.
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What are the 3 major taxonomic groups of parasitic helminths?
1. Trematodes (flukes) 2. Cestodes (tapeworms) 3. Nematodes (roundworms)
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True or false; All nematodes are parasitic.
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Necator are known as ....
Blood sucking hookworms and a certain species (Necator americanus) can cause anaemia.
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What are the 2 'benefits' of having worms?
1. ‘Wormy’ people don’t tend to get allergies, autoimmune diseases and certain cancers that are common in developed countries. 2. Many scientists now believe that parasitic worms could have real therapeutic value.
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State 7 ways that helminths can invade the host.
1. dominance of T-helper 2 (Th2) 2. loss of effector cell activity 3. helminth-induced regulatory T cells (Tregs) 4. alternatively activated macrophages 5. Th2-inducing dendritic cells 6. effects on mast cells and eosinophils
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(Previous Flashcard Continued)
7. an anti-inflammatory environment
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Define Intracellular bacteria
Intracellular bacteria are bacteria that are capable of growing and reproducing inside the cells of a host.
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Define facultative
Live and reproduce outside host
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Define obligate
Requires host for replication and survival
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Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of ? in Africa.
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Rickettsia was originally the term used to describe?
Small intracellular bacteria
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True or false; DNA analysis proves that Rickettsia is phylogenetically distinct
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What are the 2 main classes of Rickettsia?
1. Spotted fever 2. Typhus
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True or False; Rickettsia is usually tick-borne and is Gram-positive.
False- It is Gram-negative
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Rickettsia causes...
cell destruction which causes blood leakage.
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Coxiella burnetii is the causative agent of ?
Q fever
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True or False; Q fever can cause death in elderly and immunocompromised.
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True or False; Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Coxiella are Gram-negative obligate intracellular bacteria.
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True or False; Rickettsia will form a vacuole during cellular infection.
False- Rickettsia never forms a vacuole in cellular infection
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How does Chlamydia cause infection?
Chlamydia has small hairs and has polar distribution. Tiny needles inject protein into host cell (Type 3 Secretion System). Envelopment of the bacteria which forms an early vacuole. This whole process is called Bacterial-mediated endocytosis.
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Explain Chlamydial Development.
1. Starts with the Elementary Body, EB, (infectious agent) 2. Endocytosis into cell 3. Forms early vacuole (Inclusion)and takes up ATP from cells mitochondria 4. Converts into Reticular Body, RB, (this replicates)
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(Previous Flashcard Continued)
5. Once vacuole is full it is converted back into EB 6. Cell lysis occurs (nucleus is pushed out of the way)
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What is the major physical difference between the EB and the RB?
RB is huge compared to the EB.
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True or False; Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Coxiella are sensitive to antibiotics (Doxycycline) and can be controlled by a Th1 immune response.
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When talking about Coxiella burnetii, some people don't produce ? and so go into chronic stage (infection).
?= IFN-y
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True or False; Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Coxiella have reductive evolution.
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What is meant by Reductive Evolution?
Shedding of genes
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Why would they shed their genes when infecting a host?
When free living, they have to be able to produce their own vitamins e.c.t but once they infect a host they become obligate which means they steal these resources from the host and therefore they do not need the genes needed to produce their own...
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(Previous Flashcard Continued)
vitamins and so can shed these genes.
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What does LGT stand for?
Longitudinal Genome Transfer
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True or False; LGT is common within the genomes of intracellular bacteria.
False; they are rare.
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Why are LGT's rare in intracellular bacteria?
Because they rarely come into contact with other bacteria.
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What are the 4 major microbiomes?
1. Earth Microbiomes 2. Ocean Microbiomes and Nanobiomes 3. Atmospheric Microbiome 4. Microbes of Humans and Other Animals
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Define Microbiota.
Set of microorganisms that share a habitat.
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Define Microbiome.
The genomic content of the microbiota.
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Define Ecosystem.
The sum total of all organisms and abiotic factors in a particular environment.
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Define Habitat.
• Portion of an ecosystem where a community could reside.
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True or False; an ecosystem contains many different habitats.
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True or False; Human breast tissue, Female bladder and the Human lung are body sites that are sterile.
False; this has been disproved.
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What 2 body sites are still unknown whether they are sterile or not?
1. Placenta 2. Brain
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Name the 10 parts of the body which have a microbiome (P.S. number 10 is still being debated)
1. Gastrointestinal Tract 2. Skin 3. Urogenital Tract 4. Oral Cavity 5. Nasal, Nasopharynx and Upper Respiratory Tract Microflora 6. Eye 7. Mammary gland 8. Lung 9. Bladder 10. Placenta
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True or False; The microbiology of our intestines changes as we age and colonisation begins during and soon after birth.
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What 4 things determine the development of the microbiome?
1. Birth canal 2. Breast-feeding 3. Maternal microbiota 4. Environment
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What type of microbe colonises first in the development of the microbiome?
Bifidobacteria spp.
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True or False; Host genetics dominates over environment in shaping the human gut microbiota.
False- Environment dominates over host genetics in shaping human gut microbiota
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Name 4 major factors which influence the gut microbiome.
1. Antibiotics 2. Lifestyle 3. Diet 4. Hygiene
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A certain strain of this bacteria - Christensenellaceae minuta - was found to be more common among individuals of a ? body weight.
?= low
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Researchers in Belgium found that people with depression had consistently ? levels of bacteria known as Coprococcus and Dialister
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What does SCFA stand for?
Short Chain Fatty Acids
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How many phases of the Human microbiome project were there?
2 phases
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What was the main aim of the 1st phase?
Map the human microbiome and learn of its characteristics.
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What was the main aim of the 2nd phase?
To find out about the role of the microbiome in human health and disease.
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True or False; most viruses in the human body are bacteriophages.
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True or False; Only bacteria is present within the human microbiome.
False- contains some archaea and fungi
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Define Flora
In medicine, the term is used to refer to the entire bacterial life of a region of the body.
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Define Fauna
Means the same as flora but fauna is used when describing animals.
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Define Rumen
The first stomach of a ruminant (cow, deer, goat e.c.t), which receives food or cud from the oesophagus, partly digests it with the aid of bacteria, and passes it to the reticulum.
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True or False; The rumen is home to a vast array of microbes from the three great domains of life.
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There are over ? phyla of bacteria.
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How many out of the 80 phyla have been cultured?
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What 4 phyla of bacteria dominate the human microbiome?
1. Actinobacteria 2. Bacteriodetes 3. Firmicutes 4. Proteobacteria
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Diversity within a given body habitat is defined as the ...
Number / Abundance of distinct types of organisms
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Low diversity in the gut leads to ...
Obesity and inflammatory bowel disease.
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High diversity in the vagina leads to ...
Bacterial vaginosis
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What is the function of Actinobacteria within the human gut microbiome?
Lipid and carbohydrate metabolism
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What is the functions of Bacteroidetes within the human gut microbiome?
Iron and sulfur transporter functions and specific sodium-transporting ubiquinone oxidoreductases
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What is the functions of Firmicutes within the human gut microbiome?
Spore formation and thiamine and riboflavin (vitamin B2) transport were all highly enriched.
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What is the functions of Proteobacteria within the human gut microbiome?
Fructose bisphosphatase, glucokinases and regulators of iron cluster formation.
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True or False; These functions are all fully understood.
False- these functions are still not fully understood.
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Define eubiosis
Microbial balance within the body
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Define dysbiosis
Microbial imbalance within the body
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How does the body's microbiota effect health? (3 points)
1. Enhanced metabolic capabilities 2. education of the immune system 3. Gate keepers against pathogens
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What are the metabolic capabilities that are enhanced? (2 points)
1. Provides energy 2. Provides nutrients
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Explain how the microbiota enhances capabilities in terms of providing energy.
1. Enzymes enable processing of complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides). 2. Polysaccharides are converted into SCFA.
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Name 3 main SCFA.
1. Butyric acid 2. Formic acid 3. Acetic acid
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What is the key role of the gut microbiota in terms of metabolic functions? (2 points)
1. Metabolize material ingested by host 2. Metabolize products of the hosts metabolism
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The gut metabolite profile is a combination of what 3 things?
1. Host metabolism 2. Microbial metabolism 3. Mammalian-microbial cometabolism
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Explain how the microbiota enhances capabilities in terms of providing nutrients..
3 nutrients are provided; Biotin, Vitamin K and Vitamin B12
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What is the roles of SCFA's? (6 points)
1. Primary energy source for colon epithelial cells 2. Fortify the tight junctions that keep the intestinal barrier strong 3. Promote the production of the healthy intestinal mucus that keeps bacteria a safe distance away from the epithelium...
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(Previous Flashcard Continued)
... and underlying immune system 4. Promote pH balance at the epithelial surface by increasing expression of intestinal transporters. 5.Directly dampen inflammatory response in dendritic cells, macrophages and activated T cells
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6. Promote the development of tolerant immune cells
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How do metabolites prevent the invasion of pathogens? (2 points)
1. Killing the pathogens directly 2. Resisting the colonization and internalization and inducing the immune responses indirectly.
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State 4 diseases which can be caused due to a disrupted cut microbiome.
1. Inflammatory Bowel diseases 2. Obesity 3. C. difficile- associated diarrhoea (CDAD) 4. Cancer
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Other cards in this set

Card 2


The relationship which is beneficial to both organisms involved.


Define Mutualism

Card 3


The relationship between 2 organisms in which one benefits and the other derives neither benefit nor harm.


Preview of the back of card 3

Card 4


The relationship between 2 organisms in which one benefits at the expense of the other, someimes without killing the host organism.


Preview of the back of card 4

Card 5


?= cooperation


Preview of the back of card 5
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