Physiology, Adaptation and Disease

  • Created by: JAlderman
  • Created on: 27-05-20 12:45
State 4 enviornemntal changes and challenges that animals physiologically respond to.
1. Diurnal/nocturnal 2. Seasonal 3. Climate 4. Nutritional
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Name 8 changes to the enivironment.
1. Temperature 2. Light 3. Season 4. Climate 5. Food 6. Landscape 7. Pathogens 8. Anthropomorphic
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Physiological changes can occur ?
Very quickly or very slowly
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Adaptation only occurs ?
Over many generations
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Define Physiological state.
Rapid and quickly reversible
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Define Acclimation or acclimatization.
Medium term (days to weeks) and in response to sudden or progressive environmental change. Reversible if environment reverts.
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Define Evolutionary-True Adaptation.
Progressive change over generations and not reversible within individual
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Give an example of a short physiological change.
A cat's pupils narrowing in response to change in light. Shivering when cold or sweating when hot.
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Give an example of a long term adaptation.
Arctic seal lives in cold and so has an efficiant production of a thermal layer. Aniamls hybernate due to change in season
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Give 4 mechanisms of adaptation.
1. Biochemical 2. Cellular 3. Organism 4. Behavioural
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Define thermoregulation
Thermoregulation- A process whic allows the body to maintain its core temperature.
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State 3 biochemical adaptations to temperature.
1. Enzymic 2. Membrane and cell structure 3. Stress proteins
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Explain the short term changes to temperature in terms of enzymic.
1. Concentration or activity 2. Substrate concentration 3. Energy supply 4. Intracellular environment
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Explain the medium (acclimation) changes to temperature in terms of enzymic.
Recruitment of isoenzymes
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Explain the long term (evolutionary) changes to temperature in terms of enzymic.
Natural selection of individuals
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Body temperature effects the fluidity of cell ?
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Animals with lower body temperatures tend to have more ? fatty acids in their cell membranes- making them more fluid.
?= Unsaturated
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Fluidity of cell membrane alos varies...
Seasonally and with diet.
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Lizards fed diets high in poly unsaturated lipids tend to prefer ? body temperatures.
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What do heat shock proteins do?
They regulate the unfolding of proteins and so rapidly mitigate the effects of temperature change . They are also seen as molecular chaperones which aid the correct folding of proteins.
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The terms warm blooded and cold blooded are...
Not ver scientific or accurat
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Define Poikilothermic.
Tolerates change
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Define Homeothermic
Relatively constant
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Both these terms are ...
Not strictly biologically accurate
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Define Endothermic
Internal generation of heat using metabolic heat. This is most mammals and birds.
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Define Ectothermic
Regulation of body temperature depends on external sources. Mostly all other animals.
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There are exceptions and these are referred as ?
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Heat production is directly proportional to ?
Body volume
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Heat loss (or energy requirement) is directly proportional to ?
Surface area
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Define apnoea.
When breathing stops and starts (inturrupted) usually during sleep.
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What happens to blood pH during hyperventilation?
Rate of removal of CO2 from blood is increased and so partial pressure of CO2 in blood dcreases causing respiratory alkalosis.
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What is meant by a partial pressure of a gas?
In a mixture of gases, each gas contributes to the total pressure of the mixture. This contribution is the partial pressure. The partial pressure is the pressure the gas if the gas were in the same volume and temperature by itself.
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What is the name of the blood vessel whichcarries de-oxygenated blood to the lungs in mammels?
The Pulmonary Artery
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What do the carotid and aortic bodies detect?
The carotid and aortic bodies measure changes in blood pressure including the changes int he partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
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Which part of the brain houses the breathing centres?
Medulla- regulates involuntary life sustaining functions such as breathing, swallowing and heart rate.
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Where is the surfactant found?
In the lungs
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Why is the surfactant important?
Reduces surface tension throughout the lung and stabilzes the alveoli.
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What is the function of external respiration?
To meet demands of size, metabolism and habitat in exchange of O2 uptake and removal of CO2.
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Respiration relies on ?
1. Gas exchange (diffusion) 2. Bulk transport (for multicellular organism) 3. Ventilation and circulation
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Water holds ? oxygen than air.
?= less
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Bulk transport can be provided by ?
The movement of water
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Example of this?
Gills on fish
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Moving water over gills can require ?
A lot of energy.
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because water is more viscous than air.
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Air breathers need ?
Thin moist membranes and large surface area for exchange hence lungs internal to prevent loss of water.
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Bulk transport (ventilation) is provided by ?
Muscles and blood.
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What are the 4 challenges of breathing in an aquatic environment?
1. Low environmental O2 partial pressure, teperature dependent 2. O2 already dissolved in water 3. No change of gas phase required 4. evaginated systems projecting tissues into environment (gills).
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What are the 4 challenges of breathing in an terrestial environment?
1. Low environmental O2 partial pressure, altitude dependent 2. O2 must dissolve before absorption 3. CO2 very soluble in water 4. Invaginated system taking environemnt into tissues
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Alveoli are lined wiht a fluid called ?
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Birds are adapted to allow efficitent rapid gas exchange. Ventilation is ...
Seperated from gas exchange membranes
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Define myoglobin.
An iron-containing protein in muscle, receives oxygen from the red blood cells and transports it to the mitochondria of muscle cells.
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Myoglobin is found in muscle tissue only. True or false?
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How is Haemoglobin different to myoglobin?
Haemoglobin has a different structure and is found all over the body.
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How many oxygen molecules per haemoglobin?
4 oxygen molecules.
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Control of breathing- receptors in medulla respond to ?
pH and partial pressure of CO2.
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Define physiology.
Structures, functions and activties of organisms. Processes enable life to exist and function.
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What are the 3 responses to exteme environments?
1. Death 2. Tolerate 3. Avoid
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Define evolutionary divergence.
Closely related species which then evolve different adaptations.
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Define evolutionary convergence.
Distantly related species evolve similar adaptations.
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Define plasticity.
Individuals respond physiologically to change in conditions within lifetime, day and between seasons.
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Define osmolarity.
Moles solute per litre water.
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What does high osmolarity mean?
Hish solute concentration and so less dilute
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What does low osmolarity mean?
Low solute concentration and so more dilute
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Define isoosmotic.
= osmolarity
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Define hypoosmotic.
Low osmolarity v environment.
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Define hyperosmotic.
High osmolarity v environment.
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What is the major excretory organ in vertebrates?
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What is the funtional unit of the kidney?
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The loop of henle runs in a counter current. What does this mean?
Fluid flow in opposite directions.
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True or False; nephrons use diffusion only.
False- Active transport of NaCl and diffusion for the rest of molecules.
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State 3 environmental stressors.
1. Physical 2. Biological 3. Chemical
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Give an example of a physical stressor.
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Give an example of a biological stressor.
Competition, Disease
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Give an example of a chemical stressor.
Insufficient/excess nutrient toxin.
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Define toxin.
A toxin is biological and natural.
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Define toxicant.
A toxicant is synthetic and human induced.
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What are the 2 purposes of biotoxins?
1. Defence 2. Attack
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Define poisonous.
Asorbed and ingested.
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Define venomous.
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Biochemical effects can be ...
Non-protective and protective.
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State 2 Non-protective biochemical effects.
1. Inhibition 2. Disruption
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State 2 protective biochemical effects.
1. detoxifying enzymes 2. metal binding proteins
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What is disease?
Abnormal biology, disturbance of normal anatomy, physiology or biochemistry which affects the function of an animal or person.
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Define health.
A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
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Define disease.
A pathological condition of a part, organ or sytem of an organism resulting from various causes, such as infection, genetic drift or environmental stress and characterized by a group of signs or symptoms.
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Define acute.
Quick on-set, short lived (days).
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Define chronic.
Slow onset and long lasting (weeks or months).
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Define subclinical.
An infection that has yet to exhibit clinically.
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Define infectious.
Transmitted without direct contact.
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Define contagious.
Transmitted by direct contact.
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Define sporadic.
Suddenly appears, then disappears.
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Define mortality.
Death. Number of subjects killed by a pathogen.
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Define morbidity.
Conition of being diseased. Number of subjects noticeably affected by a pathogen.
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Define moribund.
At the point of death.
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Define incidence.
Number of a new cases in a population in a given time.
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Define prevalence.
Number of cases in a population at the time of the investigation (% or per 100,000).
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What are the 6 effects of disease?
1. Reduced welfare 2. Abnormal development 3. Abnormal anatomy 4. Abnormal behaviour 5. System dysfunction 6. Death
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Define aetiology (etiology)
The study of the precise cause of disease.
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Define pathogenesis
Development sequence of disease- starts at cellular level.
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Define lesions
Observed abnormal structures or functions
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The disease is dependent on interaction between what 3 things?
1. Virulence 2. Resistance 3. Environment
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Virulence factors refers to ...
Degree of pathogenicity
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Define toxigenicity
Ability to produce toxins that cause lesions. An infective organism that is non-toxigenic is not pathogenic.
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Define Invasiveness
Ability to enter and attach to the host then to multiply and spread.
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Pathogens that kill their host lead to ...
Their own extinction.
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True or False; environmental factors can affect the risk of infection and severity of a disease.
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Name 7 types of non-infectious agents.
1. Nutritional/Metabolic 2. Genetic 3. Environmental 4. Chemical 5. Allergenic 6. Traumtic 7. Phytotoxic
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How do we define agaisnt the norm
to determine if someone "is not normal" we can compare them to the rest of the community/population and/or set limits for a variable.
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True or false; The hepatic portal vein (HPV) recives the digestion of the end products of carbohydrate and protein and is the only vein in the body that brings blood to an organ.
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Define insulin.
Insulin is a hormone that allows cells to extract glucose from the blood and use it for energy.
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Where is insulin produced?
beta cells of the pancreas.
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Ineffective or lack of insulin causes what condition?
Diabetes Mellitus.
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Type 1 diabetes is when ?
Their pancreas does not produce the insulin they need.
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Type 2 diabetes is when ?
Their body cannot use this insulin effectively
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What is the term used to describe high concentration of glucose or "high blood sugar"?
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What is gestationl diabetes?
Affects pregnant women due to diet or receptivity to insulin.
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In type 1 diabetes insulin cannot be produced due to ...
The destruction of B islet cells.
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Define hypoglycemia
Low blood sugar. Occurs when blood sugar drops too low.
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Define Ketoacidosis
Also known as diabetic coma. Is a loss of consciousness due to untreated or under-treated diabetes.
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Long term effects of diabetes can be divide into what 2 groups?
Macrovascular and Microvascular complications.
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Name one macrovascular complication.
Heart disease
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Name one microvacular complication.
Kidney and retinal impairment.
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What is the treatment for type 1 diabetes?
Replacemnt insulin by injection.
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What is the treatment for type 2 diabetes?
Weight loss and exercise.
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Define metabolic syndrome.
A group of symptoms which together increase the risk of atherosclerosis.
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Name 6 chemicals used by humans.
1. Pesticides 2. Fertilisers 3. Industrial Chemicals 4. Pharmaceuticals 5. Gases 6. Particulates
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There are 2 classes of substances which can cause endocrine disruption. What are these classes?
Man-made substances and Natural hormones.
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Define endocrine disrupters
Exogenous substances that alter function(s) of the endocrine system and consequently cause adverse health effects in an intact organism.
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Edocrine disrupters interfere with the endocrine system in three different ways; what are these ways?
1. Mimicking the action of a naturally-produced hormone 2. By blocking the receptors in cells recieving hormones 3. By affecting the synthesis, transport, metabolism and excretion of hormones.
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True or False; toxicity is arguabley the most difficult xenobiotic property to adequately screen because it might be species-specific, organ-specific, influenced by multiple host factors or dependent on chronic exposure.
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What are the 2 mechanisms to clear particles from the lung?
1. Clearance via lymphatics 2. Clearance via mucociliary escalator.
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True or False; EDCs are bioaccumulative.
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What is the name of cells that transmit messages to central nervous system?
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The message is carried from one end of the neuron to the other by the ?
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This depends upon charges in ? inside the axon compared to the outside.
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Changes occur because ...
Na and K are entering and leaving the axon through channels and pumps.
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Nerve cells communicate messages to each other by ?
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Information is carried over the synapse by ?
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Give one example of a neurotransmitter.
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Within the neurone, the messsage is carried ?
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Between neurones, the message is carried ?
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The thyroid gland is situated below the ?
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Within the thyroid gland, there are what type of cells?
Follicular cells
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These cells have what type of receptor?
TSH (thyrotropin) receptors
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What does TSH receptors do?
Responds to thyroid-stimulating hormone and stimulates the production of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
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What do the hormones T4 and T3 do?
Regulate body temperature, metabolism and heart rate. Most of T3 in body binds to protein.
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True or false; A net of capillaries surround each thyroid follicle.
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True or false; the thyroid has 3 lobes.
False- It has 2 lobes.
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One function of the thyroid is to secrete hormones T4 and T3. What is the other main function?
To be able to respond to changes in for example metabolism and maintain homeostasis.
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Thyroid hormones increase the metabolic rate of all tissues by ? (2 ways)
1. Increasing activity of mitochondria 2. Increasing activity of Na-KATPase (enhanced ion transport)
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The thyroid is important for ...
normal bone maturation, especially in infants.
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What are the 2 neurological effects of the thyroid?
1. Necessary for normal fetal neonatal brain development 2. Regulation of neuronal proliferation and differentiation. myelinogenesis, neuronal outgrowth and synapse formation
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What effect does the thyroid have on growth?
Thyroid hormones are necessary for normal growth.
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Thyroid hormones are calorigenic. Define calorigenic.
Generating heat or energy from the metabolism of food.
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What effect does this have?
Increase O2 consumption and heat production.
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True or false; In general, thyroid hormones stimulate all metabolic pathways, both anabolic and catabolic.
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Thyroid hormones stimulate carbohydrate metabolism by what 3 ways?
1. Increase rate of glucose uptake by cells 2. Increases glycolysis, enhances gluconeogensis, increase rate of absorption across gut 3. Increased insulin secretion with resultant secondary effects on carbohydrate metabolism.
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Thyroid hormones effect protein metabolism by ...
Stimulating protein turnover, amino acid uptake and synthesis of muscle.
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Synthesis of thyroid hormones is regalated by TSH which is released from ?
The anterior pituitary
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The release and synthesis of TSH is regalated by TRH which is produced in the ?
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The synthesis of thyroid hormone involes ?
An Iodide pump.
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What is the first step of the synthesis of the thyroid hormones?
Iodination of Thyroglobulin (Tg)
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What enzyme is used in this stage?
Thyroid peroxidase
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Explain what happens at this stage.
Iodide is oxidised alowwing the Tg to be iodinised.
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True or False; there are 3 ways to iodinate tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin.
False- There are two ways. MIT= mono-iodotyrosine DIT= di-iodotyrosine
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What is the next step of the synthesis of the thyroid hormones?
Coupling reaction to form T3/T4
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MIT + DIT = which hormone?
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DIT + DIT = which hormone?
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T3/T4 is transported in the ?
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99.9% are bound to ...
3 different proteins
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Name one of these proteins.
Thyroxine Binding Protein (TBG)
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True or False; TBG does not bind to both T£ and T4.
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T4 is regarded as a ...
prohormone for T3
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Define prohormone.
A precursor of a hormone
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What happens structurally to convert T4 to T3?
The outer ring is deiodinased.
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What is the other version of T3?
Reverse T3 (rT3)
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What happens structurally to convert T4 to rT3?
The inner ring is deiodinased.
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True or False; rT3 has no known biological activity.
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T3 receptors are ?
Nuclear receptors
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Over activity of the thyroid is known as ?
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Under activity of the thyroid is known as ?
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Hyperthyroidism can be caused by ?
Graves disease
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What is Graves disease?
Autoimmune disorder which causes the immune system attacks the thyroid and causes it to make more thyroid hormone than the body needs.
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What is the other cause hyperthyoidism?
Toxic Multinodular Goitre (MNG)
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What is MNG?
A goitre is an enlarged thyroid caused usually by the deficiency of iodine.
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What is one cause for hypothyroidism?
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis.
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How does this cause hypothyroidism?
The thyroid gland is infiltrated with B cells, T cells and macrophages. The autoantibodies are directed against thyroglobulin and peroxidase proteins which are key in production of the hormone T4.
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What are the 3 important functions of blood in the body?
1. Fluid component of the cardiovascular system 2. Major transport system for oxygen, nutrients, antibodies and hormones around the body 3. Essential for removal of metabolic waste such as CO2, urea and lactic acid
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True or False; blood is made up of 55% plasma and 45% cells.
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Define plasma.
Supernatant obtained after centrifugation of blood.
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Define serum.
Supernatant of centrifuged blood which has been allowed to clot / coagulate naturally
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Plasma contains 2 major groups of protein. What are the 2 major groups?
1. Albumin 2. Immunoglobulins
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What is the function of albumin?
Its a major transport protein.
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What is the function of immunoglobulins?
Antibodies against foreign substances.
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Where is albumin synthesised?
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Where are immunoglobulins secreted?
B lymphocytes
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What are the 3 most common immunoglobulins?
1. IgG 2. IgM 3. IgA
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Where are blood cells made from conception to 6 weeks?
Yolk sac
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Where are blood cells made from 6 weeks to 6 months?
Liver and spleen
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Where are blood cells made from 6 months into childhood?
Bone marrow of almost all bones
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Where are blood cells made in adults?
Stem cells in the bone marrow from axial skeleton (vertebrae, rib, pelvis, hip, clavicle and sternum) and proximal parts of long bones.
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Active marrow is called ?
Red marrow
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Inactive marrow is called ?
Yellow marrow
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Red blood cells are ? in shape and lack mitochonrida and nuclei.
?= biconcave
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True or False; haemoglobin is comprised of four globulin chains, each with a haem pocket.
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The haem pocket allows O2 binding and ...
Protects the iron ion from oxidation.
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True or False; The amount of O2 binding to haemoglobin does not depend on O2 content of plasma.
False- it does depend on the O2 content of plasma.
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When plasma [O2] is low ...
O2 is released.
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The alpha and beta subunits can then ...
Bind to CO2- forming carbaminohaemoglobin
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Define polycythaemia
A blood condition where there is a high concentration of red blood cells in your blood.
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True or False; There are 7 common types of anaemia.
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What are the 7 common type of anaemia?
1. Iron deficiency 2. Thalassaeia 3. Aplastic 4. Haemolytic 5. Sickle cell 6. Pernicous 7. Fanconi
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Define Thalassaemia
Inherited disorder where body makes fewer RBCs and has less haemoglobin.
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Define Aplastic
Where the bone marrow doesn;t make enough cells, can give rise to an enlarged heart, arrhythmia, heart failure and bleeding.
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Define Haemolytic
RBCs are destroyed before their normal lifespan is up; can be inherited as part of other blood disorders.
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Define Sickle cell
Inherited, life-long disease where RBCs have characteristic sickle or 'C' shape
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Define Pernicious
Body can't make enough RBCs due to inability to absorb vitamin B12 (due to lack of intrinsic factor made in the stomach)
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Define Fanconi
A rare inherited disorder that leads to bone marrow failure, type of aplastic anaemia that prevents new blood cells being made. This may affect the body's organs, tissues and systems.
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What is haemochromatosis?
A hereditary condition where iron levels in the body slowly build up over many years, it is due to excessive absorption of iron.
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True or False; haemochromatosis is a autosomal recessive disorder assiciated with a mutation of the HFE gene on chromosome 6.
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What is porphyrias?
A group of disorders which affect the production of haem at various levles in the pathway.
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Name the 5 types of white blood cells.
1. Lymphocyte 2. Neutrophil 3. Eosinophil 4. Basophil 5. Monocyte
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What is the major function of white blood cells?
To support the immune system in fighting infectious disease and foreign invaders.
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What are the 2 main catagories of disorders for white blood cells?
1. Proliferation 2. Leukopenias
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What is leukaemia?
Name given to group of cancers which may begin in the bone marrow and lead to high numbers of abormal white blood cells.
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What are the 4 main type of leukaemia?
1. Acute Lymphoblastic 2. Acute Myeloid 3. Chronic Lymphoblastic 4. Chronic Myeloid
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Define erythropoiesis
The production of RBCs from the progenitor cells in bone marrow, process takes about 6-7 days.
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This process is stimulated by the growth factor ?
Erythropoietin (EPO)
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True or False; the liver holds approx 15% of your total blood supply at any given moment.
False; It holds approx 13% of your total blood supply
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About 60% of the liver is made up of liver cells called ?
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Ture or False; A hepatocyte has an average lifespan of 150 days.
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Blood supply to and from the liver is via ...
The hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein.
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What are the 5 stages in terms of hierachy of organisation?
Individual cells -> Simple tissues -> Compund tissues -> Organ -> Organ system
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What are the 5 main functions of the liver?
1. Carbohydrate Metabolism 2. Protein Metabolism 3. Lipid Metabolism 4. Dealing with toxins and metabolites 5. Storage
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Define jaundice
A condition in which the skin, whites of the eyes and mucous membranes turn yellow bause of a high level of bilrubin (A possible symptom of liver disease)
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Ascites is a symptom of liver disease. What is Ascites?
An accumulation of protein containing fluid in the abdomen
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What are the 2 types liver disease?
1. Acute liver disease 2. Chronic liver disease
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Liver disease can be tested by ...
Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
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These tests are classififed into 3 groups. What are these 3 groups?
1. Synthetic function of liver 2. Hepatocyte injury 3. Cholestasis
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Define Prothrombin Time (PT)
Blood test- how long does blood take to clot
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What is Cirrhosis?
The scarring of the liver caused by long-term liver damage. The scar tissue prevents the liver to work properly.
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What is hepatitis?
Term used to describe inflammation of the liver.
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What are the 3 coomon types of hepatitis?
1. Hepatitis A 2. Hepatitis B 3. Hepatitis C
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How is Hepatits A caused/transmitted?
Passed on by bad hygiene.
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How is Hepatits B and C caused/transmitted?
Blood and body fluids
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True or False; Hepattis B and C have vaccine to treat them.
False- Hepatitis C has no vaccine.
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We can think of the menstrual cycle as being made up from 4 major organs. What 4 organs?
1. Hypothalamus 2. Anterior pituitary 3. Ovaries 4. Uterus
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What are are the 2 phases of the menstural cycle and what is in each stage?
1. Follicular phase- Follicular growth and oestrogen secretion 2. Luteal phase- Corpus luteum and progerstone secretion.
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True or False; the ovaries are approximately the size and shape of an almond in humans.
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The ovaries house ovarian ...
follicles, the functional units.
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Ovarian follicles are formed during
Fetal life
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Oocytes (eggs) are contained in ...
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What are the 4 types of ovarian follicles?
1. Primordial 2. Pre-antral follicles 3. Antral follicles 4. Mature preovulatory
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During the early growth stages (primary ovarian follicle), the ? layer begins to form on the outer face of the follicle.
?= Theca cell
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What is an antrum?
Antrum is a fluid filled space.
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Up to ? stage, follicular growth is supported from within the overy by granulosa and ooctye derived by growth factors and cytokines.
?= Antral
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The next milestone for the follicle is ...
Antrym development
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This stage is dependent upon ?
Anterior pituitary gondotrophins
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They are under the hypothalamic regulation of ?
GnRH (Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone)
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GnRH triggers the release of what 2 things?
LH (Luteinising hormone) and FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
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Where are these released from?
The gonadotroph cells of the anterior pituitary
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The next stage is ?
Follicle maturation
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This realese of LH and FSH leads to ...
Granulosa and theca cells increasing in numbers
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Fluid-filled spaces in the franulosa layer fuse to form the ?
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Stem of follicular cells connects oocyte with ? to the surrounding granulosa cells.
?= Cummulus granulosa
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This stage is dependent on ?
Gonadotrophin support
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Final mature stage is known as ?
Graafian/Pre-ovulatory Follicles
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In this stage what 2 things happen?
1. Follicular antrum enlarges 2. Follicle now bulges from ovary surface
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LH travels via the circulation from the anterior pituitary to the ovary, then binds to its receptors on ? cells, causing them to syntesise androgens (testerone and androstenedione).
?= theca
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FSH binds to its receptors on the ? cells of the developing follicle.
?= granulosa
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This triggers the expression of the gene ?
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This gene encodes the enzyme ?
?= P450 aromatase
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This enzyme converts the theca cell derived androgens to ?
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The sex steroid ?, during the follicular stage, exerts negative feedback on LH and FSH secretion.
?= Estradiol
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Estradiol is a one type of ?
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What is inhibin and what does it do?
It is a peptide hormone which exerts negative feedback specifically on FSH release.
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This allow only ?
Dominant follicle (s)
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Dominant follicles have a ? density of FSH and LH receptors.
?= Greater
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True or False; When estrogen concentrations rise to about 200% of what they were during early follicle growth, and this is sustained for 48 hours, then the negative feedback on the pituitary switches to positive feedback.
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What does this cause?
A surge of LH which is the final trigger for the process of ovulation to occur.
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LH surge triggers final process of follicular rupture: ?
?= Ovulation
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The released oocyte is then ...
Transported down the fallopian tube to the uterus, where it will implant if fertillised.
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Describe the luteal pase.
The follicle has ruptured and released an oocyte (ovulation). The remmanats of the now ruptured follicle collapse and begin to form the corpus luteum- a transient endocrine organ.
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What is the corpus luteum?
Is a steroid factory; produces oestradiol and progesterone.
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Ture or False; If there is no establishment of pregnancy, then the corpus luteum will die.
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This is termed?
luteal regression or luteolysis
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If there is a pregnancy then ? is produced
?= hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin)
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What becomes of the Corpus Luteum?
It dies and shrivels (forming Corpus albicans) which is absorbed into the ovarian stroma.
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True or False; ovarian cancer is relatively common and affects mostly the older population.
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What are the 3 risk factors (in terms of ovulation) for developing ovarian cancer?
1. Early menarche (menstration) 2. Late menopause 3. Nulliparity
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Define nulliparity.
Never having completed a pregnancy beyond 20 weeks.
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What are the 2 risk factors (in terms of inflamation) for developing ovarian cancer?
1. Talc (clay mineral in Talcum powder 2. Endometriosis ( Tissue similar to womb lining starts to grow in other places such as ovaries.)
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What are 2 other risk factors for developing ovarian cancer?
1. Age 2. Family History
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What 5 factors can be used to protect aginst ovcar.
1. Reduced risk pregnancy 2. Breast-feeding 3. COCP use (contraceptive pill) 4. Tubal Ligation (Tubes tied) 5. Hysterectomy
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What 2 tumour suppressor genes are associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer development if either one is mutated?
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True or False; Sporadic ovarian cancers are around 50% of all ovarian cancers.
False- Spordic ovarian cancers are around 90% of all ovarian cancers.
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True or False; In sporadic cancers, there is currently no genetic link and route of developent is poorly understood.
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What is the current thinking of ovarian cancer development?
Less ovulations= lessinflammation= less chance of genetic damage to OSE cells= less chance of ovarian cancer development.
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What are OSE cells and what do they have to detect damage?
OSE cells= Ovarian Surface Epithelium cells. OSE cells have checkpoint mechanisms to defend against damage getting out of hand.
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What could be a future treatment for ovarian cancer?
Chemo/gene therapy
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What could be 2 future prevention methods agaisnt ovarian cancer?
1. Genetics 2. Anti-inflammatory agents
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Give 4 reasons why we don't detect this disease at an early treatable stage.
1. Lack of suitable screening tests 2. Lack of suitable Circulating biomarkers 3. Lack of symptoms in early stage development of disease 4. What symptoms are present are often overlooked, not very specific.
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Card 2


Name 8 changes to the enivironment.


1. Temperature 2. Light 3. Season 4. Climate 5. Food 6. Landscape 7. Pathogens 8. Anthropomorphic

Card 3


Physiological changes can occur ?


Preview of the front of card 3

Card 4


Adaptation only occurs ?


Preview of the front of card 4

Card 5


Define Physiological state.


Preview of the front of card 5
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