Applied

?
  • Created by: Chookie
  • Created on: 30-05-17 16:36
Proponents of self-determination theory recommend that an: “individual in a position of authority takes the other’s perspective, acknowledges the other’s feelings, and provides the other ... this defines"
Autonomy support
1 of 173
When assessing the danger that an offender poses to others, a forensic psychologist may consider static risk factors. Static risk factors are best defined as factors influencing an offender that:
are historical and cannot be changed.
2 of 173
reland’s (2008) Life Minus Violence Therapy is used with
offenders with a history of showing aggression.
3 of 173
The HCR-20 (Webster et al., 1997) is a violence risk assessment tool that groups cues (i.e., variables that predictor violent behaviour) into separate categories. Within the HCR-20, employment problems, early maladjustment and.. examples of
historic cues
4 of 173
In a study of recall and recognition of the details of an event staged in a “scary” tourist attraction, Valentine and Mesout (2009) found that participants reporting high levels of stress (state anxiety) recalled:
fewer correct details and more incorrect details
5 of 173
The Enhanced Cognitive Interview (Fisher, et al., 1987) used when interviewing witnesses sought to improve the earlier Cognitive Interview (Geiselman et al., 1985) by adding:
An initial phase where the interviewer seeks to build rapport with the witness
6 of 173
The PEACE interview:
treats a witness interview as a complex conversation between the interviewer and eyewitness
7 of 173
Laughery, Duval and Wolgalter (1986) found that when participants described an unfamiliar face from memory they described:
more features from the upper half of the face than from the lower half of the face.
8 of 173
Mary is dealing with her victimisation by (among other things) seeking social support and reappraising the stressor in a positive light. She is engaging in:
Emotion-focused coping
9 of 173
The processes undertaken by a victim in an attempt to answer the question “Why did this happen to me?” can best be explained through:
Attribution theory
10 of 173
The statement, “I knew something bad was going to happen if I went to that part of town” is an example of:
Hindsight bias
11 of 173
Which factor is NOT considered on the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG) risk assessment?
Future income
12 of 173
A man is convicted of a serious assault towards his ex-wife’s new partner. He talks about a ‘red mist descending’ prior to the assault. He does not have a history of previous aggression and there are no reports of frequent anger loss. This is an exa
Over-controlled aggression
13 of 173
A crisis negotiator following the Behavioural Influence Stairway Model (Van Hasselt et al., 2008) uses active listening:
throughout the negotiation process.
14 of 173
When assessing the danger that an offender poses to others, a forensic psychologist may consider dynamic risk factors. Dynamic risk factors are best defined as factors influencing an offender that:
may be open to change through therapy
15 of 173
The Disclosure Management Model (Frost, Daniels & Hudson, 2006) describes four main styles that sex offenders adopt during therapy. An individual who is keen to move forward and to set goals that prioritise their needs is displaying the:
exploratory style
16 of 173
The HCR-20 (Webster et al., 1997) is a violence risk assessment tool that groups cues (i.e., variables that predictor violent behaviour) into separate categories. Within the HCR-20, lack of insight, negative attitudes and impulsivity are examples of:
clinical cues
17 of 173
Loftus and Burns (1982) found that when participants viewed a film with an unexpected and violent ending, they were less likely to recall details seen just before the end of the film than when the film had a non-violent ending. This phenomenon is an
retrograde amnesia
18 of 173
The PEACE interview can be used to interview witnesses to a crime. “PEACE” stands for:
Planning and preparation; Engage and explain; Account; Closure; Evaluation
19 of 173
Research suggests that increasing the number of individuals in an identification line-up, generally:
Decreases the chance that an innocent suspect is selected, but makes little difference to the chance that a guilty suspect is selected.
20 of 173
John is dealing with his victimisation by (among other things) seeking a sense of control and by avoiding the cause of the stressor. He is engaging in:
Problem-focused coping
21 of 173
Women tend to hold false beliefs about **** because:
They wish to deny their own vulnerability to ****
22 of 173
As discussed in the lecture, Gerber et al’s (2004) alternative perspective on the defensive attribution hypothesis suggests that men tend to blame female **** victims more and male assailants less than will women, because:
Men identify with ‘power traits’
23 of 173
The statement, "If only I had set my alarm clock..." is an example of
Counterfactual thinking
24 of 173
According to Davies, Pollard, & Archer (2001), men tend to blame **** victims most when the victims are:
Gay men
25 of 173
Aggression in which the victim is harmed and knows who the perpetrator is and knows the perpetrator’s intent is referred to as:
Direct aggression
26 of 173
One element that distinguishes a crisis situation from a conflict situation is tha
in a conflict situation the perpetrator is motivated by clear goals when taking a person captive/hostage.
27 of 173
The principled negotiation approach developed by Fisher, Ury and Patton (1993) encourages the negotiating parties to:
identify objective criteria with which to evaluate the options.
28 of 173
When forensic psychologists consider whether how vulnerable someone is to re-offending, they may use a formulation. A formulation is a:
description of why an individual offends and what might reinforce or minimise his/her offending.
29 of 173
Flin and Shephard (1986) found that when people estimated someone’s weight after interacting them they typically:
Underestimated the weight for heavy individuals, and overestimated the weight for light individuals
30 of 173
The Cognitive/ Enhanced Cognitive Interview is used when interviewing witnesses. Part of the interview involves reinstating the context, what memory research prompted the inclusion of this?
Encoding specificity
31 of 173
Snyder and Swann (1978) found that interviewers tended to select questions that were phrased in such a way as to fit with a hypothesis that they were asked to test. This is an example of:
confirmatory hypothesis testing
32 of 173
Williamson (1993) described four approaches to interviewing that a police officer might adopt when interviewer a suspect. One of these approaches is typified by: being co-operative, un-emotional.... these are features of the?
counselling approach
33 of 173
Burton et al. (1999) showed participants video footage of people that were familiar to them, and obscured either the face, or the gait, or the body of the person in the video clip. Their results suggest that for recognising a familiar person:
the face is the most important feature.
34 of 173
When selecting the members of an identification line up, it is:
NOT recommended that members are selected who look similar to the photograph of the suspect, because of the tendency to form a prototype when shown a series of faces.
35 of 173
Reactions to being a victim of crime:
Are both physiological and psychological
36 of 173
Prejudicial, false beliefs about ****, **** victims, and rapists are called:
**** myths
37 of 173
Later consequences of a particular incident are referred to as the:
Aftermath
38 of 173
Men's tendency to report **** is decreased if:
Their masculinity would be put into question
39 of 173
The Movement Assessment Battery for Children is a scale used to assess children for...
Developmental Coordination Disorder
40 of 173
What is the effect of expectations on learning?
All pupils tend to perform to the level expected of them
41 of 173
The “triad” of impairments in Autistic Spectrum Disorder are
Social Interaction, Verbal & Nonverbal Communication, Behavioural Flexibility
42 of 173
A child has learning difficulty when he or she has greater difficulty in learning than the majority of children...
of the same age or has a disability which affects them making full use of educational facilities and resources for children of the same age
43 of 173
SEND stands for...
Special Educational Needs and Disability
44 of 173
According to Gagné (1985, 2003), a ‘gifted’ individual is a learner whose potential is above average in one or more of the following domains:
Intellectual, social, physical or creative
45 of 173
Cognitive-developmental theory
Is a constructivist approach
46 of 173
According to Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development is:
Where the learning process takes place
47 of 173
The development of the secondary emotions is linked to the development of:
Self-awareness
48 of 173
Competence, autonomy and relatedness are three innate psychological needs that comprise the self-determination theory of
Student motivation
49 of 173
Dodge and Pettit’s (2003) biopsychosocial model of conduct problems shows the complex interweaving of influences that can give rise to:
behavioural problems in young people at school
50 of 173
Didactic Instruction” considers learners to be:
Empty vessels ready to receive knowledge
51 of 173
The Wechsler Intelligence Scale For Children measures
General Intelligence as well as specific subscales
52 of 173
The term “externalizing difficulties” refers to:
Being disruptive or disturbing
53 of 173
Specific and Pervasive Learning Difficulties manifest as deficits in ________
Thinking and Learning
54 of 173
A child has a learning difficulty when he or she has greater difficulty in learning than:
the majority of children of the same age
55 of 173
Dyslexia is a:
Specific learning difficulty
56 of 173
Cognitive-developmental theory suggests that:
A child is an active agent in his development
57 of 173
The Special Educational Needs Code of Practice covers learners from ages:
0 to 25 years
58 of 173
Motor Disorder, Specific Learning Disorder, and Intellectual Disability are listed in the DSM 5 as
Neurodevelopmental Disorders
59 of 173
Communication Disorders are
More common in boys than girls
60 of 173
Education, Health, and Care Plans should be SMART. What does SMART stand for?
Specific, Measureable, Achievable, Realistic, Time-Bound
61 of 173
Prior to World War 2, Child Guidance Clinics were run by local educational authorities. Their main focus was:
“Problem Children”
62 of 173
The application of behaviourist principles in educational settings:
Works only in small groups and where normal learning mechanisms are disabled
63 of 173
According to Gagne (1985, 2003), a gifted individual is a leaner whose potential is above average in one or more of the following domains:
Intellectual, social, physical or creative
64 of 173
The development of the secondary emotions is linked to the development of:
Self-awareness
65 of 173
The development of personality is affected by
Personal, environmental and behavioural factors
66 of 173
Self-determination theory (SDT) focuses on people’s basic needs for competence, autonomy and relatedness. In the educational context, SDT is a theory of:
student motivation
67 of 173
Dodge and Pettit’s (2003) biopsychosocial model of conduct problems shows the complex interweaving of influences that can give rise to:
behavioural problems in young people at school
68 of 173
The influence of educational psychology is strongest in
Special Needs Education
69 of 173
Approximately how many dedicated Special Education Schools are there in the UK?
1000
70 of 173
The Constructivist Perspective emphasizes _____________ in employee selection
the “fit” between applicants, organisations, and teams
71 of 173
Enrichment (Rothbard, 2001) and facilitation are frameworks which describe
The positive effect of having different roles
72 of 173
What is the Hawthorne Effect?
the change in behavior of participants in a study due to their awareness of being studied
73 of 173
Depth of processing refers to
doing more cognitive work with new information
74 of 173
Changes to attitude based on central processes are influenced by
the quality of arguments
75 of 173
Lapses’ refer to
situations when the intention is correct, but you omit to carry out the action.
76 of 173
The visuo-spatial sketchpad
processes visuospatial information.
77 of 173
A fully integrated relationship between an individual and an organization is one where
the individual has internalised the norms and values of the organization.
78 of 173
Self-Categorization theory proposes that
personal and social identity represent different levels of selfcategorization.
79 of 173
Haslam (2005) argues that social loafing is least likely to come about when
there is no social identification with the group.
80 of 173
“Aptitude” is defined as an individual’s:
ability to think and process information mentally
81 of 173
Work-Life Balance refers to _______________
how demands from home and work can be reconciled
82 of 173
According to Fiedler (1965), task oriented leadership is most effective when ______
the leader is already accepted by the group.
83 of 173
The most important factor in the facilitation of organizational development is __________
leadership
84 of 173
The Swiss Cheese model describes _________ ?
a system of defenses against human error
85 of 173
The concept of “transactional leadership” entails _____________
expecting subordinates to perform expected goals
86 of 173
Procedural knowledge refers to
knowledge of how to do something
87 of 173
Changes to attitude based on peripheral processes are influenced by
the emotional content of arguments
88 of 173
The guidance hypothesis suggests that
the amount of feedback should be greater initially, and decrease with each successive attempt
89 of 173
The episodic buffer
processes information from multiple modalities.
90 of 173
The phonological loop
processes speech-like information
91 of 173
Personal control is where
the individual acts in line with their own motives.
92 of 173
Social control is where
the individual acts in line with social norms and values.
93 of 173
______________________ is based on an individual’s desire to be correct.
informational influence
94 of 173
______________________ is based on an individual’s desire to be accepted by the group.
normative influence
95 of 173
In Social-cognitive career theory, outcome expectations refer to
expectations surrounding the likely results
96 of 173
Equity theories of motivation pre-suppose that
individuals seek a balance between effort and likelihood of positive outcomes
97 of 173
The Predictivist Perspective tries to match people to the right jobs by using
Psychometric Methods
98 of 173
In the field of personality testing the “A” in the OCEAN acronym stands for
Agreeableness
99 of 173
Retirement can be detrimental to a person’s _________________
Identity
100 of 173
Equity theories of motivation pre-suppose that
individuals seek a balance between effort and likelihood of positive outcomes
101 of 173
Leadership can be described in two main ways (Bass, 1990). These are:
task oriented and relationship oriented
102 of 173
Ergonomics is the science of ______________
designing the task to fit the person.
103 of 173
Declarative knowledge refers to...
knowledge that can be stated
104 of 173
The difference between massed and distributed training is that
distributed training is a slower learning process, but leads to longer retention.
105 of 173
Bounded rationality means
our thoughts are bounded by cognitive limitations, but within these limits we are rational.
106 of 173
Mistakes’ refers to
successfully carrying out an incorrect action.
107 of 173
Identities are described as
an internalized set of role expectations.
108 of 173
Role theory proposes that
an organization may be conceptualized as a collection of roles.
109 of 173
Social influence is defined as
a change in an individual’s attitudes in response to exposure to the attitudes of another.
110 of 173
Path-goal theory proposes that, to be effective the behavior of the leader must...
have a motivational impact on subordinates.
111 of 173
Situational leadership theory proposes that optimal leadership style..
becomes less task-oriented as the level of follower maturity increases.
112 of 173
n health care the term primary prevention refers to:
interventions designed to prevent illness
113 of 173
The differential exposure hypothesis suggests that the higher prevalence of health problems in low socioeconomic status groups is associated with
greater exposure to psychological stressors
114 of 173
Janice Kiecolt-Glaser showed in 1995 that:
stress could slow wound healing
115 of 173
Allostatis refers to
the ways in which the HPA axis, the autonomic nervous system, the cardiovascular system and the immune system help the body to adapt to stress
116 of 173
Chronic stress has been reliable associated with:
increased ageing
117 of 173
In England and Wales in the 21st Century...
Life expectancy of people living in the most deprived regions is nearly 10 years lower than life expectancy of people living in the least deprived regions
118 of 173
In rich countries, a person’s physical health and life expectancy is most strongly predicted by
His or her position within the socioeconomic hierarchy in the country in which he or she lives
119 of 173
Richard Doll’s 50 year study of the health effects of cigarette smoking showed that on average a smoker will die 10 years younger than a non smoker. He also found that if a person quit smoking by the age of 30..
His life expectancy would be same as a person who had never smoked
120 of 173
Kiecolt Glaser’s (1991) study showed that
Chronic stress is associated with slower wound healing
121 of 173
Motivating change in health behaviours by generating contradictions between beliefs and actions makes use of which psychological phenomenon?
Cognitive dissonance
122 of 173
Which intervention would best increase condom sales?
Receive information about condom use, give a talk to promote the use of condoms, and reflect on past failures
123 of 173
When are people most likely to engage in systematic processing of health messages?
The message is personally relevant
124 of 173
When are people most influenced by the expertise of the person delivering a health message?
The message is not personally relevant and the argument is weak
125 of 173
According to Bandura (1995), which observation has the greatest detriment on self-efficacy?
Failure in a model judged to have similar skills as the observer
126 of 173
By which route can beliefs such as ‘If so many people agree they must be right’ influence health behaviours?
Peripheral or heuristic route
127 of 173
According to the transactional approach to stress
Stress experienced by an individual is highly dependent upon their appraisal of the stressor
128 of 173
Chronic stress has been reliably associated with
Increased ageing (a)
129 of 173
Caring for a disabled child or parent with Alzheimer’s disease is likely to cause chronic stress because
demands are high and control is low
130 of 173
In their meta-analysis of acute stress, what form of stress did Dickerson & Kemeny (2004) find raised cortisol levels the most?
Tasks with social evaluative threat that were uncontrollable
131 of 173
Which approach best describes someone who confronts their emotions about a stressor?
Emotion-focused; Active
132 of 173
Which approach should you take to cope with a stressor if you do not have control over the problem?
Emotion-focused; Active
133 of 173
In a study of breast cancer patients, which coping style did Stanton et al. (2000) find was best at decreasing distress?
Expressing emotions
134 of 173
When might instrumental support be beneficial in the work place?
A problem cannot be solved without it
135 of 173
In a study of terminally ill patients, what did Herbst-Damm and Kulik (2005) find led to the longest survival?
A visit from a volunteer hospice visitor requested by the patient
136 of 173
Which best describes a problem-focused aWhich best describes a problem-focused approach to coping? pproach to coping?
Attempting to change the situation
137 of 173
When appraising a stressor, at what stage do people assess their coping options and resources?
Problem-focused; Avoidant
138 of 173
What kind of support did Reynolds & Perrin (2004) find was particularly beneficial for female cancer patients’ psychosocial adjustment?
Support when it was wanted by the patient
139 of 173
Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that health messages can motivate behaviour change if they highlight that an individual’s behaviour is:
Inconsistent with their own attitudes
140 of 173
Through which processing route are health messages most likely to lead to behaviour change?
Central or systematic route
141 of 173
When is a fear inducing health message most likely to lead to behaviour change?
The recipient is high in self-efficacy and the cost of the healthy act is low
142 of 173
A central characteristic of psychological diagnoses is:
Dysfunction
143 of 173
The sociogenic hypothesis claims that
individuals in low socio-economic classes are more likely to develop schizophrenia.
144 of 173
According to Clark’s (1986, 1988) model of panic disorder, a vicious cycle develops. His theory proposes that a trigger leads to:
the perception of threat, which leads to apprehension, which leads to a misinterpretation of sensations.
145 of 173
Research on thought suppression (e.g., Wenzlaff and colleagues) has shown that
attempts to actively suppress unwanted thoughts results in a greater tendency to experience those thoughts.
146 of 173
One DISADVANTAGE of creating diagnostic categories is that diagnosis:
may lead to stigma
147 of 173
disorders include antisocial and borderline categories.
Personality
148 of 173
Wahlberg et al. (2004) found that in adopted children, an inherited predisposition for schizophrenia led to an increased risk of the disorder only when
there were dysfunctional communication patterns in the adoptive home.
149 of 173
Anxiety sensitivity is
the belief that the symptoms of anxiety have harmful consequences.
150 of 173
One treatment for depression based on neurochemistry uses tricyclic drugs. These work by
inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
151 of 173
The therapist-client relationship is LEAST important in:
Psychoanalytic therapy
152 of 173
When comparing the incidence of schizophrenia amongst family members, the relative with the greatest likelihood of also having the disorder is
a monozygotic twin
153 of 173
The social-selection hypothesis claims that
individuals in low socio-economic classes are more likely to develop schizophrenia.
154 of 173
Phobias are characterized by
fear and avoidance of specific objects and situations
155 of 173
Obsessive thoughts in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder tend to take the form of
fear of causing harm to oneself or to others.
156 of 173
An important characteristic of psychological diagnoses is:
Emotional distress
157 of 173
Diagnosing people with clinical disorders makes them ___ vulnerable to stigma
More
158 of 173
In the Diathesis-Stress Perspective, “Diathesis” means
An inherited biological predisposition*
159 of 173
Which neurotransmitter is most closely linked to schizophrenia?
Dopamine
160 of 173
In people with schizophrenia, the inability to screen out irrelevant stimuli correlates highly with
disturbances of thought and language.
161 of 173
Autism is associated with aberrant brain development. In particular, there is evidence that
people with autism have abnormalities of the cerebellum and the limbic system.
162 of 173
Panic disorder is characterized by...
unpredictable and frightening panic attacks
163 of 173
One psychological theory of Generalized Anxiety Disorder argues that information-processing biases mediate the disorder. In this theory, it is argued that...
attentional biases to threat are the cause of the anxiety.
164 of 173
Research on thought suppression (e.g., Wenzlaff and colleagues) has shown that...
attempts to actively suppress unwanted thoughts result in a greater tendency to experience those thoughts.
165 of 173
The DSM and ICD systems rely primarily on ____ to create diagnostic categories
Symptoms
166 of 173
___ therapy is especially effective for specific phobias such as fear of flying on airplanes.
Behavioral therapy
167 of 173
How did Gottesman and Bertelsen (1989) address the issue of environmental confounds in twin research on schizophrenia?
They compared the concordance risk for the offspring of twins.
168 of 173
Symptoms closely resembling schizophrenia can be induced by using an excessive amount of
Amphetamine
169 of 173
In the Awkward Moments Test, participants were shown film clips and asked two types of question. One type of question was about the state of mind of the characters in the films. The other was a control question. What were the researchers controlling
Memory abilities
170 of 173
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by...
chronic and uncontrollable worrying
171 of 173
One treatment for depression based on neurochemistry uses monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors. These work by...
increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine.
172 of 173
When appraising a stressor, at what stage do people assess their coping options and resources?
Secondary appraisal
173 of 173

Other cards in this set

Card 2

Front

When assessing the danger that an offender poses to others, a forensic psychologist may consider static risk factors. Static risk factors are best defined as factors influencing an offender that:

Back

are historical and cannot be changed.

Card 3

Front

reland’s (2008) Life Minus Violence Therapy is used with

Back

Preview of the front of card 3

Card 4

Front

The HCR-20 (Webster et al., 1997) is a violence risk assessment tool that groups cues (i.e., variables that predictor violent behaviour) into separate categories. Within the HCR-20, employment problems, early maladjustment and.. examples of

Back

Preview of the front of card 4

Card 5

Front

In a study of recall and recognition of the details of an event staged in a “scary” tourist attraction, Valentine and Mesout (2009) found that participants reporting high levels of stress (state anxiety) recalled:

Back

Preview of the front of card 5
View more cards

Comments

No comments have yet been made

Similar Psychology resources:

See all Psychology resources »See all all resources »